Project statement of work

 

 

Answer the following multiple choices questions.
1) Which project role provides resources or support for the project, promotes and protects the project at
higher levels of management, and takes an active role in the project from the chartering stage through
project closure?
a) Functional manager
b) Project manager
c) Project team member
d) Project sponsor
2)Which PMBOK® Guide Knowledge Area includes those processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully?
a) Cost management
b) Scope management
c) Risk management
d) Quality management
3) In order to be successful, the project team must be able to assess the needs of stakeholders and manage their expectations through effective communications. At the same time they must balance competing demands among project scope, schedule, budget, risk, quality, and resources, which are also known as project _____?
a) Plan elements
b) Deliverables
c) Constraints
d) Targets
4) Projects pass through a series of phases as they move from initiation to project closure. The names and number of these phases can vary significantly depending on the organization, the type of application, industry, or technology employed. These phases create the framework for the project, and are referred to collectively as the ________.
a) project life cycle
b) project management information system (PMIS)
c) product life cycle
d) Talent Triangle
5) Based on PMI’s definition, which of these is a good example of a project?
a) manufacturing a standard commodity
b) following policies and procedures for procuring an item
c) designing and launching a new website
d) using a checklist to perform quality control

6) When would a predictive project life cycle be the preferred approach?
a) when the high-level vision has been developed, but the product scope is not well defined
b) when the environment is changing rapidly
c) when the product to be delivered is well understood
d) when the product will be created through a series of repeated cycles
7) To be effective, a project manager needs to possess all of the following competencies except ____.
a) personal effectiveness—attitudes, core personality traits, leadership
b) authority—power or right granted by the organization
c) performance—what project managers can accomplish while applying their project management
knowledge
d) knowledge of project management—understanding of project management tools and techniques
8) In Adaptive Life Cycles (change-driven or agile methods) ___.
a) the overall scope of the project is fixed, and the time and cost are developed incrementally
b) the overall cost is fixed, and the project scope and schedule are developed iteratively
c) the time and cost are fixed, but the scope is developed iteratively
d) change control is very important
9) The two traditional project management associate-level roles are different in each of the following
ways except ____.
a) duration of time spent on project
b) ability to work within project constraints
c) degree of input contributed to project planning
d) skill set
10) A freelance project manager is brought in by Company X to lead a large, expensive project. This
project manager has excellent leadership skills and a strong technical understanding of the project. In
order for her to optimize every component of the Talent Triangle, what might be a good activity for the
project manager at the start of her time with Company X?
a) familiarize herself with the long-term objectives of Company X
b) host an icebreaker for all team members
c) attend a seminar on advanced leadership techniques
d) send an email including her résumé to all SMEs to ensure they are aware of her technical background
11) A collection of projects, programs, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives
are called a:
a) Process
b) Portfolio
c) Subprogram
d) Life cycle
12) Projects may be undertaken as a result of any of the following strategic reasons except:
a) Social need
b) Market demand
c) Need to keep workers busy during slow times
d) Environmental considerations
13) A narrative description of products, services or results to be delivered by the project is a:
a) Request for information
b) Business case
c) Project statement of work
d) Elevator pitch
14) All of the following are true except:
a) A portfolio may contain multiple programs and projects
b) b) A project manager has the discretion to make trade-offs in regard to which programs to pursue.
c) A program manager has the discretion to make trade-offs in regard to which projects to pursue.
d) Projects have a finite timeline, while programs may exist as long as the parent organization does.
15) Which of the following is a financial analysis tool that an organization may use to determine the costvalue of potential projects?
a) Payback Period (PP)
b) Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
c) Net Present Value (NPV)
d) All of the above 16) All projects should be aligned with their organization’s strategic plan, which includes the
organization’s vision, goals, and objectives. Which of these describes an organization’s vision?
a) Conveys a larger sense of organizational purpose, and is both inspiring and guiding.
b) Describes short and long term results along with measures to determine if they have
been achieved.
c) Includes the organization’s core purpose, core values, beliefs, culture, primary business,
and primary customers.
d) Is SMART: specific, measurable, achievable, results-based, and time-specific.
17) The __________________ best describe(s) why a project is being undertaken.
a) statement of work
b) business case
c) subprojects
d) source selection criteria
18) The document that includes the necessary information to determine whether a project is worth the
required investment, and is used for decision making by upper management, is called the:
a) Project Scope Statement
b) Project Charter
c) Business Case
d) Case Study
19) An organization’s vision often includes reference to its social, environmental, and economic health,
collectively referred to as the:
a) triple bottom line
b) business case
c) statement of work (SOW)
d) net present value (NPV)
20) A business case typically contains information regarding the business need and a financial
analysis. Which financial model divides the cash flow by the initial cash outlay?
a) Benefit-Cost Ratio (BCR)
b) Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
c) Net Present Value (NPV)
d) Payback Period (PP)

The weighted total score of Project A=1*10+3*7+4*3 =43
The weighted total score of Project B=3*10+5*7+3*3 =74
The weighted total score of Project C=5*10+4*7+3*3 =87
The weighted total score of Project D=2*10+3*7+1*3 =44
The sequence of project selection is as below=
First = Project C
Second= Project B
Third = Project D
Fourth = Project A
Reason- the project with the highest weighted score will be selected first followed by the following weighted scores.

1. NPV= 500,000/1.06^2 250,000/1.06^3 100,000/1.06^4 = 444,998.22+209,904.82+79,209,37
734,112.41=NPV
2. BCR= 734,11.44/2,500,000=0.29 is less than
3. 378,071.82 164,379.06 57,175.32. No, because most the years NPV is lower than the 6% one.
4. No, because the project is not profitable.

Sample Solution

lican Party’s foundation incline more towards an abolitionist subjection plan. Conservatives saw subjugation as indecent and disallow the extension of bondage into every single western domain, they go against the confirmation of new slave state and constrained a definitive eradication of servitude. The Republican faction was to a greater degree a Northern state ideal party, they had the very ethics that the party did. Nonetheless, the South goes against the Republican coalition. Stephan Douglass was in the progressive alliance, which was the generally #1 by the South. The Southerners saw the Republican faction as progressive association, since it compromised their lifestyle and their property privileges. The intriguing reality here is that the Southern States undermine with severance even before Lincoln won the official political race.

The Civil War endured (1860-65) slaves-states see the start of a Northern Revolution, start a counter-transformation. South Carolina chose to withdrew from the Union and the requests to the state right way of thinking to leave the association. This lead to the arrangement of the Confederate States of America. The Confederacy-South Carolina, Georgia, Florida, Mississippi, Louisiana, Alabama and Texas. The President of the Confederate states was Jefferson Davis. The Spark of war, was the issue of the Federal fortifications in the Confederate States, Fort Sumter in South Carolina. The Confederate states were known for their extraordinary military abilities under the standard Robert E. Lee, and the General which drove the Union to triumph. De-centralization thwarted the alliance’s capacity to arrange the conflict endeavors. Such state’s privileges, A.) failure to raise assets through charges confederate states opposed tax collection B.) powerlessness to pass induction regulations, the confederate states battled all alone. The South needed adequate harvest utilization horticulture and wasteful transportation framework. There was restricted railroad lines accessible the south had 9,500 miles versus 22,000 miles for the North.

The contention about the South was about the versatility. The South was not such presented to railroad tracks however much the North was. Since they didn’t have the portability like the

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